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20. In like manner dividing one by another, some of the formula of No. 18, we find 1+sin Q_ sin2 (45° + Q)_sin (45°+ Q)

sin2 (45°-Q cos2 (45°+Q)

1-sin Q
1+cos P cos P

=

tang (45°+Q)

=cot2 P

1-cos P

sin P

1+sin P sin2 (45°+Q)

1+cos P cos P

1-sin Q_ coversin Q_sin (45°-Q)

1-cos Q

versin QsinQ

21. Resuming the values of sin (A+B), sin (A-B, cos (A+B),

cos(A-B), we deduce from them

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tang(A+B)

tang A+ tang B

cot A cot B-1

cot A+cot B

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tang A-tang B
cot B-cot A
1+tang A tang B cot B cot A+1

=

Therefore cot (A-B)_1+tang A tang B_cot B cot A +1

tang A-tang B

22. Let A-45°, and we shall have 1+tang B_cot B+1

cot B-cot A

tang (45°+B)=

;

tang (45°-B)=

1-tang B cot B-1
1-tang B

cot B-1

=cot (45°+B)=

1+tang B

cot B+1

If we make A=B= C we shall have

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2 tang A

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cot C= cot C-tang C and cot C=2 cot C+tang C.

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-

24. Let A-B, and we shall have cosec 2 A cosec2 A 1+cot2 A cot A+tang A

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But cot A2 cot A + therefore cosec A=cot A+tang A

=cot A-cot A, by writing for tang A its

value, cot A-2 cot A. We have also sec 2 A=

1+tang2 A

sec2 A 1-tang2 A 1-tang2 A (1+tang A) 2 tang A 1+tang A_2 tang A 1-tang A 1--tang A1-tang A 1-tang A

tang (45°+A,) and

2 tang A
1-tang- A

=tang 2 A

But 1+tang A 1-tang A Therefore sec 2 A=tang (45°+A)-tang 2A; and zec A=tang (458+A)-tang A-cot (45°- A)-tang A

Since sec A

1 cos A

and cosec A- ; we have sec A

1 sin A

tang A cosec A; and substituting all the values of cosec A found

tang A above, we shall have sec A- (cot A+tang A)=tang

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A (cot A+tang A)=1+tang A tang

cot A)=tang A cot A-1-tang A

tang A

A-tang A (cot A

-1

These formulas may be varied in an infinity of ways by adding, subtracting, dividing them, &c. But it is useless to dwell longer upon so easy a matter.

See the Introduction to the Analysis of Infinities, by EULER.)

CALCULATION OF THE TABLES OF SINES, BY

SERIES.

The same thing has occurred with respect to 'Tables of Sines as had before taken place with the Tables of Logarithms. The first calculators had already completed their labours, when means were found to simplify them. These means are not the less ingenious on this account, as we may judge from the method proposed by John Bernoulli, in the second volume of his works.

We shall give the analysis of it.

25. If we turn back to the values of tang (A+B) we shall de

duce tang (A+B+C)_tang (A+B)+tang C

1-tang C tang (A+B)

Let then a, b, c be the respective tangents of the arcs A, B, C; and we shall have (by writing for tang (A+B) its value) tang

(A+B+C)=a+b+c_abe

1-ab-ac-be

Similarly, if a, b, c, d, are the respective tangents of the arcs A, B, C, D, we shall have

tang

(A+B+C+D)=a+b+c+d-abc_abd-acd_bod

I-ab-ac-ad-bc-bd-cd+abcd

Whence in general if there be any number of arcs A, B, C, D, &c.; then callings the sum of their tangents, sh the products of them two by two, sit their products three by three, we shall have

tang (A+B+C+D+&c.) =

s-ss-s + &c.

1-ss-s + &c.

Suppose for a moment that the arcs A, B, C, &c. are all equal, then if we call the number of them 1, and tang A the tangent of

any one of them, we shall have (Page 111) sn.n-1 tang A,

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2
n. n-1. n-2. n-3
2.3.4

We have therefore in general Tang n A

tang A,

...

11. n--1. n--2tang3 A+ n.n-in--2. n--3. n--tang A-&c.

2. 3. 4. 5

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n tang A

2.3

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2.3.4.

sin A

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"

the above fraction becomes

cos A

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or, multiplying both numerator and denominator by Cos" A, we

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Cos A cosn- sin2 A+ n. n-1.n-2. n-3 cosm-4 sin A,&c.

2.3.4

Let N be the numerator of this last quantity, and D its denominator; then by actually performing the calculation we shall find

N+D2 cos2n A+n cos2n-2 A sin2 A+

......

N

sin2n A-(cos2 A+sin2 A)"=1

n. n-1
2

cos2n-4 A sin+ A +

But since on the one hand N2+D2=1, and on the other

D-cos n A.

2

; it is clear that N-sinn A, and that

D=tangan A

2

sin'n A
cos2 n A

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Suppose now that the arc A is infinitely small, so that n must be infinite, in order that the arc n A may be of a finite magnitude a, we shall have

1st. Sin A-A, because an infinitely small arc does not sensibly differ from its sine;

a A

2dly. cos A-1; because the cosine of an infinitely small arc is

equal to radius.

3dly.n-1_n_n-2_n-3, &c. because n is infinite.

a

Lastly, A -- These values being substituted in the 'pre

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26. Let now the arc a be any part of 90°; since the arc of

1

m

90%=1.570796326794896...&c. we shall have, calling c this

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The value of any cosine will in like manner be found by the

following formula:

COS

90°1

m

C2
一十

C4

-6+&c.

4

2 m 2.3.4 m2 2.3.4.5.6 m

which by substituting the values of c gives

1

19

&c.

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